Now we all know that Morgoth laid the heavy part of his thought upon Hurin and all of his children but what I have always wondered is did he have a literal hand in their demise, or merely a figurative one?
I know he placed a curse on them but was this the only thing that brought about all their sorrow? Mere words? Was it merely because his thought and will and hatred were aimed at the kin of Hurin that, as he said, the whole of Arda would bend to his will and bring about distress for them. (This could account for the rains being out of season and all going ill when Turin was an outlaw)
Or was it merely by chance that his curse was held true. Like many curses that hold true but are not done so through physical involvement nor because of the help of Ardas powers.
What do you guys think?
Numenore - A LOTR Community
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